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Tuesday, April 14, 2009

103.06: Time of Origin/John

Evidence No. 6: Why was John to send the Book of Revelation to the Churches in Minor Asia and not to the Church in Jerusalem?


I John, who also am your brother, and companion in tribulation, and in the kingdom and patience of Jesus Christ, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ. (Revelation 1:9 KJV)

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In Revelation 1:9 John makes clear that he is one of the Christians, their "brother, and companion in tribulation". He also says that he was banished to the isle of Patmos because he had preached the Word of God, and for his testimony of Jesus Christ. Who else but John the Disciple could have given a better witness, he who had been at Jesus' side at the cross while all the others had run away? (cf. "Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene. When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son! Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home. " (John 19:25-27 KJV)

John's visions were addressed to the seven Christian churches in Minor Asia, to so-called "Heathen-Christians". If he had foreseen the fall of the Temple, this would have interested the Jews in Jerusalem more than the Christians there, because the Temple was not such an important place after Jesus' resurrection anymore for the Christians who know that God is not in the Temple anymore, but that their bodies are the Temple where God dwells in form of the Holy Spirit. Jesus ascended to Heaven and is sitting at the right hand of the Father now. He left us the Holy Spirit on earth, the third person of the Triune God, so we would never be orphans. Why should Jesus send John visions that were meant for the Jews ? It does not make any sense at all. No, the visions were for the Christians, the seven Churches which were not even near Jerusalem but in Minor Asia, and given that they stand symbolically for all the Christian churches, the fact that they were in Minor Asia makes clear that the visions were not meant for the Jews.

Another important evidence is that John did not address the Jews or Christians in Jerusalem. Why did he not warn them of the destruction of the Temple and Jerusalem? He obviously did not, because there were not many left, and the fall of Jerusalem had taken place already when he had his visions. John the Disciple had been one of the founders of the first church in Jerusalem. The Apostle Paul wrote in Galatians 2:9 in the years 50-57 a.d.: "And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision." So John, James and Peter were to teach and pastor the Christians of Jewish origin, while Paul and Barnabas were to gain the heathens. Since they were in a close relationship with the Lord, that was not their decision but God's. So why should God tell John to preach to the Jews in Jerusalem, and then before the destruction of many there give John visions of the Temple in Jerusalem and send it to seven churches in Minor Asia, Heathen -Christian churches? The people there would have felt pity for Jerusalem, but it did not mean anything to their lives, because it was far away. Travelling was a hard thing in those times. We know that Paul had founded a number of churches in Greece, like in Ephesus or Corinth. So why would God send John the visions, and not Paul if the visions were seen before 70 a.d., before the destruction of the Temple?

There is just one logical answer to all of these questions, and that is that the Apostle John received the visions from the Lord after the destruction of the Temple in Jerusalem, and his visions did not refer to this event at all.

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